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DM's avatar

As a layman a lot in this article does not make sense to me.

How can the police arrest someone if the CPS is saying the threshold for prosecution is not met, aren't the CPS in fact saying no crime has been committed?

Can the police arrest someone if no crime has been committed - I thought that would be an unlawful arrest?

How can the police just use the word "recalibration" to go against the advise of the CPS?

What does "recalibration" even mean here and is it up to police to interpret or reinterpret the law?

The quotes from the police chiefs is "tested" we will "test this" but testing means putting it before a court of law to see if a conviction results, how can a conviction result if the CPS will not prosecute?

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Zain de Ville's avatar

I wrote a short Note prompted by this piece, reflecting on moral latency, slogans, and why law ends up stepping in when argument fails. I’d be interested in your thoughts.

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